Nutrition - test two

 1. Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?

   A. Galactose
   B. Fructose
   C. Lactose
   D. Glucose

 2. A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of

   A. two monosaccharides.
   B. two polysaccharides.
   C. one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide.
   D. two oligosaccharides.

 3. The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called

   A. biosynthesis.
   B. anabolism.
   C. photosynthesis.
   D. glycogenesis.

 4. What is the major monosaccharide found in the body?

   A. Glucose
   B. Fructose
   C. Galactose
   D. Sucrose

 5. Glucose also is known as

   A. levulose.
   B. ribose.
   C. maltose.
   D. dextrose.

6. The term "simple carbohydrates" refers to

   A. monosaccharides.
   B. monosaccharides and disaccharides.
   C. disaccharides.
   D. polysaccharides.

  7. Which of the following is a major source of lactose?

   A. Buttermilk
   B. Broccoli
   C. Apples
   D. Honey

  8. The monosaccharides important in nutrition are

   A. glucose, fructose, lactose.
   B. fructose, glucose, galactose.
   C. fructose, glucose, maltose.
   D. sucrose, thictose, glucose.

  9. Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion?

   A. Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking; softens tough skins
   B. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach
   C. Chewing food does not assist in carbohydrate digestion
   D. Saliva production does not influence starch digestion

10. What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine?

   A. Salivary amylase
   B. Bicarbonate
   C. Pancreatic proteases
   D. Pancreatic amylase

11. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the

   A. stomach with gastric lipase.
   B. stomach with salivary amylase.
  C. mouth with salivary amylase.
  D. small intestine with pancreatic amylase

12. Amylase is

  A. an enzyme that digests protein.
  B. branched chain of glucose units.
  C an enzyme that digests starch.
  D. a straight chain of glucose units.

13. What is the fate of disaccharides not digested in the small intestine?

  A. They pass into the colon and are absorbed
  B. They pass into the colon and are fermented by bacteria
  C. They are absorbed and converted to glycogen
  EL They are absorbed and converted to fat

14. Glucose is absorbed via

  A. passive absorption.
  B. facilitated absorption.
  C. active absorption.
  D. participatory absorption.

15. Which of the following is NOT true of carbohydrate absorption?

  A. Monosaccharides can enter the villi
  B. End products of carbohydrate digestion are transported through the portal vein to the liver
  C. Maltose is transported through the portal vein to the liver
  D. Disaccharides are digested to monosaccharides by enzymes attached to intestinal cells

16. Lactose intolerance is caused by

  A. a milk allergy.
  B. lactase deficiency.
  C. milk bacteria.
  D. intestinal bacteria.

17. The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are

  A. gas, abdominal pain, and distention.
  B. a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose.
  C. a headache and chest pain.
  D. nausea and vomiting.

18. The main function of glucose is

    A. to serve as raw material to build tissue.
    B. to work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions.
    C. to repair tissue.
    D. to supply energy.

 19. Which of the following hormones corrects a hyperglycemic state?

    A. Insulin
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Cortisol
   D. Culucagon

20. Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state?

   A. Insulin
   B. Testosterone
   C. Estrogen
   D. Glucagon

21. When insulin is released it causes

   A. the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood.
   B. muscle and fat cells to increase glucose uptake.
   C. fat breakdown in fat tissue.
   D. the liver to make glycogen from protein.

22. Which of the following hormones is released during stressful times to increase blood glucose levels, making more energy available for use?

   A. Insulin
   B. Epinephrine
   C. Glycogen
   D. Progesterone

23. For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source?

   A. Muscles
   B. Brain
   C. Liver
   D. Heart

24. Glycogen is

   A. a highly branched polysaccharide.
   B. stored in the absence of dietary carbohydrate.
   C. a straight chain of glucoses linked together
   D. a hormone for blood glucose regulation.

25. Starch is comprised of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule?

   A. Fructose
   B. Glycerol
   C. Glucose
   D. Galactose

26. Amylose is

   A. a long straight glucose chain.
   B. branched glucose chains.
   C. a long, straight fatty acid chain.
   D. branched amino acid chains.

27. The major storage sites for glycogen are

   A. muscles and liver
   B. kidney and muscles.
   C. liver and kidney.
   D. liver and pancreas.

28. Soluble fibers

   A. increase stool size significantly.
   B. are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria.
   C. do not dissolve in water
   D. can lower blood cholesterol.

29. Which of the following is not a rich source of soluble fiber?

   A. Fruits
   B. Oatmeal
   C. Whole wheat bread
   D. Legumes

 30. Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which cancer?

   A. Colon
   B. Liver
   C. Pancreatic
   D. Stomach

31. Which of the following foods would have the most fiber?

   A. Kidney beans
   B. English muffins made with enriched flour
   C. Orange juice
   D. Corn flakes

32. When eating a high-fiber diet one should

   A. restrict fluid intake.
   B. not be concerned about consuming large amounts.
   C. avoid foods that are not whole grain.
   D. increase fluid intake.

33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus?

   A. Arises most commonly in adulthood
   B. Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis
   C. Sometimes caused by viral infection
   D. Has a genetic link

34. All of the following are characteristic of Type 2 diabetes mellitus except

   A. arises most commonly in adulthood.
   B. caused by insensitivity of fat cells to insulin.
   C. often associated with obesity
   D. the least common form of diabetes.

35. A saturated fatty acid contains
  A. no double bonds
  B. one double bond.
  C. 2 to 12 double bonds.
  D. 14 to 24 double bonds,

36. Blood test results that reveal a person's serum cholesterol and triglycerides are called a
  A. lipid profile.
  B. circulating fat profile.
  C. fasting blood glucose profile.
  D. glucose intolerance profile.

37. Olive oil contains abundant amounts of which type of fatty acid?
  A. Saturated
  B. Monounsaturated
  C. Polyunsaturated
  D. Partially hydrogenated

38. In which form are most dietary lipids found?
  A. Sterols
  B. Phospholipids
  C. Triglycerides
  D. Monoglycerides

39. All the following describe the behavior of fat cells except
  A. the number decreases when fat is lost from the body.
  B. the storage capacity for fat depends on both cell number and cell size.
  C. the number increases when storage capacity has reached its limit.
  D. the body's ability to store fat is limitless.

40. Which of the following describes a fatty acid that has one double bond?
  A. Saturated
  B. Hydrogenated
  C. Monounsaturated
  D. Polyunsaturated

41. What is the composition of triglycerides?
  A. Fatty acids, glycerol, and sterols
  B. Fatty acids, glycerol and phosphorus
  C. Fatty acids and glycerol
  D. Fatty acids, glycerol, phosphorus, and sterols
42. Which of the following does NOT describe a function of fat?
  A. Adds flavor to food
  B. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
  C. Best source of energy for the brain
  D. Insulating and protecting the body

43. If a fat contains mostly saturated fatty acids, it is likely to be
  A. liquid at room temperature.
  B. solid at room temperature.
  C. rancid at room temperature.
  D. soft at room temperature.

44. The main reason for hydrogenating fats is to
  A. improve taste.
  B. change a liquid fat to a solid fat
  C. change a solid fat to a liquid fat.
  D. improve food appearance.

45. Which of the following is true about trans fatty acids found in hydrogenated fats?
  A. When consumed, they can decrease blood clotting
  B. When consumed, they can raise serum LDL cholesterol
  C. When consumed, they can lower serum LDL cholesterol
  D. When consumed, they have no effect on serum cholesterol

46. Timothy wants to avoid eating hydrogenated fat. All the following are appropriate except
  A. using little or no stick margarine.
  B. using tub margarines and vegetable oils.
  C. avoiding consumption of deep fried foods at quick-service restaurants.
  D. eating packaged cookies and desserts made with vegetable shortening.

47. The three-carbon structure to which fatty acids are attached in triglycerides is called
  A. glycerol.
  B. glucose.
  C, lipoprotein.
  D. sterol.

48. After absorption, long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides inside intestinal cells
  A. are converted to proteins.
  B. are converted to glucose.
  C. are reformed into triglycerides.
  D. are converted to cholesterol.
49. The body energy that can be stored in almost unlimited amounts is
   A. glycogen.
   B. triglyceride.
   C. protein.
   D. glucose.

50. The major function of adipose tissue is to
   A. store glycogen.
   B. store triglycerides.
   C. synthesize protein for muscle.
   D. store cholesterol.

51. The body stores excess protein as
   A. muscle.
   B. glucose.
   C. triglycerides.
   D. amino acids.

52. Phospholipids differ from triglycerides in which of the following ways?
   A. A compound containing phosphorus replaces at least one fatty acid
   B. Phospholipids do not contain glycerol
   C. Phospholipids do not contain fatty acids
   D. A compound containing nitrogen replaces at least .one fatty acid

53. Which of the following is true about lecithin?
   A. Supplements will assist in weight loss
   B. It prevents heart disease
   C. It is an essential part of every cell
   D. It is an essential nutrient

54. Sterols are similar to triglycerides in which of the following ways?
   A. They contain fatty acids
   B. They contain glycerol
   C. They usually contain three fatty acids
   D. They do not dissolve in water

55. Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
   A. It is an essential nutrient
   B. It is found in plant and animal foods
   C. It is found only in plants
   D. It is found only in animal products
56. The major fat-digesting enzyme is
  A. salivary amylase.
  B. pepsin.
  C. gastric lipase.
  D. pancreatic lipase.

57. Alter chylomicrons leave the intestinal cells, they are transported via what system?
  A. Vascular
  B. Lymphatic
  C. Capillary
  D. Venous

58. Lipoproteins contain the following components except
  A. protein.
  B. cholesterol.
  C. carbohydrate.
  D. phospholipid.

59. Once the chylomicrons arrive at their destination via the bloodstream, the triglycerides in the
  chylomicrons are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids by an enzyme associated with the
  blood vessel called
  A. lipoprotein lipase.
  B. pancreatic lipase.
  C. lingual lipase.
  D. lecithin lipase.

60. Which lipoprotein is responsible for picking up cholesterol from dying cells and other
  sources so it can be transported back to the liver for excretion?
  A. Chylomicron
  B. Low-density lipoprotein
  C. Very-low-density lipoprotein
  D. High-density lipoprotein

61. Hydrogenation produces what kinds of fat?
  A. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)
  B. Cis-fatty acids
  C. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
  D. Trans-fatty acids

62. The basic building block of a protein is called a(n)
  A. fatty acid.
  B. monosaccharide.
  C. amino acid.
  D. keto acid.
63. The chemical element found in all amino acids but not found in either carbohydrates or fats is
  A. carbon.
  B. nitrogen.
  C. oxygen.
  D. hydrogen.

64. An essential amino acid
  A. can be synthesized if there is a nitrogen source.
  B. can be synthesized if caloric intake is adequate.
  C. cannot be synthesized in sufficient quantity to meet body needs.
  D. can be formed from semiessential amino acids.

65. The nitrogen from amino acid breakdown is
  A. stored in the liver
  B. oxidized to carbohydrate.
  C. converted to urea.
  D. converted to fat.

66. Proteins are chemically digested in which areas of the body?
  A. Mouth and stomach
  B. Mouth and small intestine
  C. Stomach and small intestine
  D. Small and large intestines

67. What enzyme is released by the stomach to digest protein?
  A. Pepsin
  B. Lipoprotein lipase
  C. Amylase
  D. Trypsin

68. Which of the following is NOT true about pepsin?
  A. Amino acid chains are the digestive products of its action
  B. Pepsin works best in an alkaline environment
  C. Acid activates pepsin
  D. Pepsin acts on food in the stomach

69. If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?
  A. Body cells will synthesize it
  B. Protein synthesis will be limited
  C. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate
  D. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid
70. If a food does not contain the necessary amounts of a certain amino acid to meet a body need,
   that amino acid is referred to as a
   A. complementary amino acid.
   B. essential amino acid.
   C. limiting amino acid.
   D. dispensable amino acid.

71. When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess
   amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecule is
   A. stored as glycogen and/or fat.
   B. excreted in the urine.
   C. stored as amino acids in muscle.
   D. stored as amino acids in the liver.

72. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?

73. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body's needs for glucose,
   which of the following can be converted to glucose?
   A. Urea
   B. Fatty acids
   C. Amino acids
   D. Ketones

74. The chemical bond joining adjacent amino acids is called a(n)
   A. glycosidic bond.
   B. ionic bond.
   C. amino bond.
   D. peptide bond.

75. Cooking an egg alters its appearance due to
   A. denaturation.
   B. emulsification.
   C. esterification.
   D. detoxification.

76. Food proteins are used most efficiently when we
   A. are eating a very low kcalorie diet
   B. eat large quantities of protein even though our kcalorie intake may be low.
   C. are consuming enough carbohydrates and fats to meet our kcalorie needs.
   D. are eating enough fat even though carbohydrate intake may be low.
77. All the following are primary tfunctions of protein except to
  A. repair tissues.
  B. support growth of new tissue.
  C. supply more than 40 percent of the kcalories in the diet.
  D. maintain body tissues.

78. Antibodies are
  A. hormones.
  B. enzymes.
  C. lipoproteins.
  D. proteins.

79. One would be likely to see positive protein balance in all of the following conditions except
  A. growth.
  B. pregnancy.
  C. starvation.
  D. recovery from surgery.

80. All the following describe the fate of excess protein except
  A. could be used for energy.
  B. could be made into glucose.
  C. could be made into fat
  D. could be stored in the liver.

81. All the following describe kwashiorkor and marasmus except
  A. forms of protein-energy malnutrition.
  B. common in developing nations.
  C. created by political, economic, geographic, social, and dietary factors.
  D. diseases that are troublesome but not life threatening.

82. Kwashiorkor usually is associated with a deficiency of
  A. carbohydrate.
  B. fat.
  C. protein.
  D. kcalorie.

83. A vegetarian who eats only plant foods is a(n)
  A. lacto-ovo-vegetarian.
  B. lacto vegetarian.
  C. vegan.
  D. ovo-vegetarian.